DKSuddeth
Accomplished Advocate
imported post
In Murdock, the USSC specifically stated that no state may charge a license, fee, or tax for a right protected by the US constitution, yet Scalia seems to be saying that a state can actually do that now. Is this correct?
In Murdock, the USSC specifically stated that no state may charge a license, fee, or tax for a right protected by the US constitution, yet Scalia seems to be saying that a state can actually do that now. Is this correct?