Probable Final Comment
I. I was born in Michigan, spent my first 24 years in Michigan, own property in Michigan and have a lot of family in Michigan. I don’t think that I am out of line to comment in the Michigan forum. I am not from Wisconsin but since I have family there, I have an interest in what goes on. Nobody has enhanced status simply because he lives in Michigan at the moment.
II. My goal was not to prove that I am right or that someone else is wrong per se. It is to argue for an interpretation of the law or point of view that I believe is correct. I read the trespass law. I performed a reasonable analysis of what it said in view of everything I have experienced. A respected attorney holds the same view. Could we be wrong? Of course. It is always possible for a court to interpret a law otherwise. But to insist on a court decision to support my particular take on the law is rather one-sided. Those who argue “signs have no legal weight” are not asked to provide case law to back up their view. It is as if I said "telling a person orally" has no legal weight because "telling" and "orally" don't appear in the statute. I don’t have access to a database that has Michigan decisions but I would venture that there isn’t a case directly on point. Even if there were, anything short of a unanimous Michigan Supreme Court decision probably wouldn’t be accepted by the naysayers. Do any of them concede that their interpretation could be incorrect if and when a court looked at a case? Most of the time judges do not agree, at least on some aspect of a case.
III. I have read many posts in various forums (fora?) and folks often seem to think that whatever the words in the statute say is all you need to know and if something is not explicitly stated then it doesn’t exist or cannot be considered. I pointed out before that the statute contains the words “forbid” and “notice” (or some variation thereof). To understand what the statute means, we need to know at a minimum what the words mean. Absent a court case interpreting the words, typically we use the common meaning. Here again is the text:
MCL 750.552 Trespass upon lands or premises of another; penalty.
Any person who shall wilfully enter, upon the lands or premises of another without lawful authority, after having been forbidden so to do by the owner or occupant, agent or servant of the owner or occupant, or any person being upon the land or premises of another, upon being notified to depart therefrom by the owner or occupant, the agent or servant of either, who without lawful authority neglects or refuses to depart therefrom, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for not more than 30 days or by a fine of not more than $50.00, or both, in the discretion of the court.
History: Add. 1951, Act 102, Imd. Eff. May 31, 1951
Somebody please explain what “having been forbidden” means.
Somebody please explain what “being notified to depart” means.
In both cases, provide support for your interpretation and why my interpretation fails. Merely stating a conclusion like “signs carry no legal weight” is doing what you accuse me of having done. I am at least holding one lawyer in my hand of cards. You should show what you have. If you want to argue some constitutional point or the difference between a private residence and a private business, provide some support for your position.
IV. I admit that my writing style can be abrasive but it is not meant to insult anyone. For those times where I did say something unflattering towards anybody, I apologize. Doing so was tacky and such behavior never advances an argument. I was quite frustrated that some of those who responded hadn't even bothered to read my posts (in their entirety) and/or simply fell back on bumpsticker quotes.
V. This difference in opinions is probably all an academic exercise anyway. I believe and think that most would agree (if they held the same opinion on the law/signs as I do) that it would never come to arrest or lawsuit. A person who trespassed (however you think that might be done) would likely be asked to leave (repeatedly) before law enforcement were summoned. The only exception might be if there was property damage, physical injury or another criminal act involved. Business owners don’t like disruption and seek to resolve issues as quickly and quietly as possible.
Even if you believe that my position has no value, it might be worth considering if you intend to enter a business that has a “No Guns” sign while OC’ing and there is a LEO standing in the entrance. Would you take that chance?
Thank you for your attention. This will be my last input on the matter unless asked a question or somebody posts a misinterpretation of what I have written.
I. I was born in Michigan, spent my first 24 years in Michigan, own property in Michigan and have a lot of family in Michigan. I don’t think that I am out of line to comment in the Michigan forum. I am not from Wisconsin but since I have family there, I have an interest in what goes on. Nobody has enhanced status simply because he lives in Michigan at the moment.
II. My goal was not to prove that I am right or that someone else is wrong per se. It is to argue for an interpretation of the law or point of view that I believe is correct. I read the trespass law. I performed a reasonable analysis of what it said in view of everything I have experienced. A respected attorney holds the same view. Could we be wrong? Of course. It is always possible for a court to interpret a law otherwise. But to insist on a court decision to support my particular take on the law is rather one-sided. Those who argue “signs have no legal weight” are not asked to provide case law to back up their view. It is as if I said "telling a person orally" has no legal weight because "telling" and "orally" don't appear in the statute. I don’t have access to a database that has Michigan decisions but I would venture that there isn’t a case directly on point. Even if there were, anything short of a unanimous Michigan Supreme Court decision probably wouldn’t be accepted by the naysayers. Do any of them concede that their interpretation could be incorrect if and when a court looked at a case? Most of the time judges do not agree, at least on some aspect of a case.
III. I have read many posts in various forums (fora?) and folks often seem to think that whatever the words in the statute say is all you need to know and if something is not explicitly stated then it doesn’t exist or cannot be considered. I pointed out before that the statute contains the words “forbid” and “notice” (or some variation thereof). To understand what the statute means, we need to know at a minimum what the words mean. Absent a court case interpreting the words, typically we use the common meaning. Here again is the text:
MCL 750.552 Trespass upon lands or premises of another; penalty.
Any person who shall wilfully enter, upon the lands or premises of another without lawful authority, after having been forbidden so to do by the owner or occupant, agent or servant of the owner or occupant, or any person being upon the land or premises of another, upon being notified to depart therefrom by the owner or occupant, the agent or servant of either, who without lawful authority neglects or refuses to depart therefrom, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for not more than 30 days or by a fine of not more than $50.00, or both, in the discretion of the court.
History: Add. 1951, Act 102, Imd. Eff. May 31, 1951
Somebody please explain what “having been forbidden” means.
Somebody please explain what “being notified to depart” means.
In both cases, provide support for your interpretation and why my interpretation fails. Merely stating a conclusion like “signs carry no legal weight” is doing what you accuse me of having done. I am at least holding one lawyer in my hand of cards. You should show what you have. If you want to argue some constitutional point or the difference between a private residence and a private business, provide some support for your position.
IV. I admit that my writing style can be abrasive but it is not meant to insult anyone. For those times where I did say something unflattering towards anybody, I apologize. Doing so was tacky and such behavior never advances an argument. I was quite frustrated that some of those who responded hadn't even bothered to read my posts (in their entirety) and/or simply fell back on bumpsticker quotes.
V. This difference in opinions is probably all an academic exercise anyway. I believe and think that most would agree (if they held the same opinion on the law/signs as I do) that it would never come to arrest or lawsuit. A person who trespassed (however you think that might be done) would likely be asked to leave (repeatedly) before law enforcement were summoned. The only exception might be if there was property damage, physical injury or another criminal act involved. Business owners don’t like disruption and seek to resolve issues as quickly and quietly as possible.
Even if you believe that my position has no value, it might be worth considering if you intend to enter a business that has a “No Guns” sign while OC’ing and there is a LEO standing in the entrance. Would you take that chance?
Thank you for your attention. This will be my last input on the matter unless asked a question or somebody posts a misinterpretation of what I have written.
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